Shailesh Vara MP and his second home

The MP for North West Cambridgeshire, Shailesh Vara, was outed yesterday by the Daily Telegraph in relation to claiming for mortgage interest relief prior to being elected. He countered this with the argument he forgot to pro-rata his claim for the time he wasn't a politician. A genuine mistake he would argue.

The property in question was in his wife's name only, he blamed that on his Solicitors mistake when the house was purchased. Fair enough he claims.

But one statement he made which I can't get my head round is:

'....The house was our matrimonial home and the name on the deeds and bills does not alter the reality of the ownership....'

Just one little problem here. 'Matrimonial Home' A matrimonial home is not a second home. Why was Shailesh Vara claiming for what he describes as his Matrimonial home?


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